Let $(X_i)$ be i.i.d. random variables with mean $\mu$ and finite variance. Then $$\dfrac{X_1 + \dots + X_n}{n} \to \mu \text{ weakly }$$ I have the proof here: What I don't understand is, why it
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Week 121 Law of Large Numbers Toss a coin n times. Suppose X i 's are Bernoulli random variables with p = ½ and E(X i ) = ½. The proportion of
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